Thursday, October 30, 2008
Matthew 4:7 - Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God.'" King James has "the Lord, your God."
Luke 4:12 - Jesus answering, said to him, "It has been said, 'You shall not tempt [Yahweh] your God.'"
Deuteronomy 6:16 - You shall not tempt Yahweh your God.
The above scriptures are being presented as proof that Jesus is God, that is, that Jesus is allegedly a person of the only true God (trinitarian).
A few of the sites where this claim is made:
The above sites are given, not because we believe what they present but for reference only.
Actually, if Satan thought that Jesus was God Almighty then he would have known how fruitless it would have been to try to deceive God so as to provoke God to sin. However, there is no indication whatsoever that Satan thought that he was trying to get Yahweh to sin.
Satan did not think that Jesus was God, but rather the son of God:
"If you are the Son of God." -- Matthew 4:3,6; Luke 4:9.
This was the emphasis that Satan himself was putting on his tests of Jesus, that is, in effect, Satan was saying to Jesus: "I want you to prove that you are son of God by doing this...." In reality, it was Satan's hopes to trick Jesus, to deceive Jesus, into being disobedient. Satan was not asking Jesus to prove that Jesus was God. Certainly Satan would have known if Jesus was Yahweh, and knowing that, would have also known that it would fruitless to try to deceive Yahweh into disobeying or denying Himself.
Let us read the context:
Matthew 4:5 - Then the devil took him into the holy city. He set him on the pinnacle of the temple,
Matthew 4:6 - and said to him, "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written, 'He will give his angels charge concerning you.' and, 'On their hands they will bear you up, So that you don't dash your foot against a stone.'"
Matthew 4:7- Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test Yahweh, your God.'"
What did Jesus say? Jesus did not appeal to Himself, so as to tell Satan, I am your God whom you should not test," but rather Jesus appeals on his own behalf to written Word of his God: "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God'" (Matthew 4:7), thereby showing his denial to submit to the temptation of Satan. The expression "your God" refers to Yahweh as the God of Israel, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), who is also the God of Jesus, the God who sent Jesus. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
Jesus was referring to the Law as given to Israel, Deuteronomy 6:16, which words were spoken to the nation of Israel, which was the only nation which had Yahweh as their God by covenant relationship. (Exodus 19:5,6; Deuteronomy 7:6; Amos 3:2) Thus, the words "your God" are in reference to the Israel's God. Was Jesus here claiming that he [Jesus] was Yahweh, and was Jesus telling Satan that he [Jesus] was Satan's God (as though Satan were under the Law through Moses) and that Satan should not be testing Satan's God? In reality, such an idea has to be added to and read into what Jesus said, and such an idea would actually take what Jesus said out of the context of the quote that Jesus gave, so as to apply Jesus as being Satan's God.
On the other hand, Jesus was, by birth, an Israelite, born under the law. (Galatians 4:4) Jesus knew who his God was. Jesus was applying the verse to himself as an Israelite, that he [Jesus], who worshiped Yahweh as his God, should not test Yahweh by submitting to the stunt that Satan was telling him to do.
Therefore, in reality, the fact is that Jesus was not saying to Satan that Jesus was "Yahweh, your God," the God that Satan was not to test.
Click Here for some recommended Bibles.
Sunday, October 19, 2008
Some trinitarians give Hosea 1:7 as an alleged example of two persons who are both called "Yahweh," and thus they offer Hosea 1:7 as an alleged proof of their doctrine of the trinity.
Here Yahweh is is contrasting the House of Judah with the House of Israel. In Hosea 1:6 he says that he will no longer have mercy on the house of Israel. To the house of Israel, Yahweh was, in effect, saying, "You are not my people, and I will not be your [God]." (Hosea 1:9) To the house of Judah, however, Yahweh is saying, "I will have mercy on the house of Judah, and will save them by Yahweh their God." Yahweh spoke of Himself by name as their God to emphasize that He, Yahweh, was still the God of house of Judah, and also that it would He, Yahweh, their God, who would deliver Judah, and that their deliverance would not be due to the implements that men use to conquer by means of battle. The JFB Commentary states regarding this:
more emphatic than "by Myself"; by that Jehovah (Me) whom they worship as their God, whereas ye despise Him.
Thus, while the house of Israel, as a whole, had come to despise Yahweh, Yahweh was emphasizing that He was still the God of the house of Judah.
What the trinitarian, however, would like for us to do regarding this verse, is (1) assume that the trinity dogma is true; (2) assume that "Yahweh" who is speaking is one person of Yahweh; (3) assume that when Yahweh said "by Yahweh" that this "Yahweh" is another person of Yahweh, who is not the first assumed person of Yahweh who speaking; and (4) then assume that these two assume persons who they claim are both called "Yahweh" are two persons of their alleged triune Yahweh. In reality, there is no need to add and read all these assumptions into the scripture.
Some trinitarians point to this scripture as proof that God is one. There thought, however, is that "God" means three persons in one God, or as some prefer, God in three persons. Is that, however, what James meant when he said "God is one." Is James speaking of three persons, all of whom are the one God that he speaks of?
James starts out his letter by first differentiating "God" from the "our Lord Jesus Christ." He says, "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ." (James 1:1) He continues to use the word "God" in James 1:5,13,20. In James 1:27 he speaks of "our God and Father." In the second chapter of James, he uses the word "God" in James 2:5, before he uses the word in again in James 2:19. We are not given any hint that James changed the meaning of the word "God" in James 2:19 to mean more than the God and Father as he spoke on in James 1:1,27. James continue identify "God" with the Father in James 3:9. Thus, there is no reason to think that in James 2:19 he is not also referring the Father as that "one" God. This agrees with Jesus' statement that his Father is "the only true God." (John 17:3) Rather than giving us any reason to think of the one God as three persons, James 2:19 in its context vindicates the God and Father of Jesus as the one and only true God. -- John 20:17; Romans 15:6; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3.
In reality, we do not find the doctrine of the trinity in the Bible at all, much less find it there as a basic doctrine of the Bible. The idea has to be added to, and read into, each and every scripture that is presented to allegedly claim that the Bible teaches such a doctrine. Jerry Casper has presented a page in which he endeavors to show scriptures both from the Old Testament and the New Testament that are alleged to indicate, or give credence to, the trinitarian dogma.
I will, Yahweh willing, present the scriptures he uses, and sometimes a point that he might raise. In some cases I may give a brief comment. In other cases, I may present links that give a discussion of the scripture. In some cases I may do both.
Matthew 28:18,19 - Verse 18 definitely proves that Jesus is not the Supreme Being, since the Supreme Being, being the source of all power, does not need to have such power given to him.
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
Direct Scriptures where all three are mentioned together
Of course, the fact that the God of Jesus, and the holy spirit of God, are mentioned in the same verses with the God of Jesus, does not mean that all three are persons of the only true God.
1 Corinthians 12:4-6
1 Peter 1:2
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
One Divine Being:
This, of course, would limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being. The Bible does not do this. The word "divine" comes from forms of the Hebrew word usually transliterated as "EL." These forms are translated in the Greek New Testament as forms of the Greek word usually transliterated as "THEOS." EL, in its basic meaning, denotes, power, strength, might. There is only one "MIGHT" in the universe, and that one MIGHT is the God and Father of Jesus, since He is the source of all might in the universe. There are others, however, to whom the Bible legitimately applies the words for divinity, such as the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) The saints are called to partake of the "divine nature." Thus, others who receive special mightiness from the only true MIGHT, can also be referred to as divine. This includes the Son of God who was sent by the only true God. -- John 17:1,3.
If one wants to limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being, then that One would be the God and Father of Jesus.
The Divinity of Jesus
Was Jesus Divine as a Human?
The Divine Nature in 2 Peter 1:4
The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"
James 2:19 - God is One
John 10:30 and the Oneness of Yahweh and Jesus
Old Testament Scriptures Alleged as Indications of the Trinity:
Plurality of the Godhead (elohim):
The plurality of ELOHIM signifies more than one God, not persons who make up one God.
Elohim - Does This Word Indicate a Plurality of Persons in a Godhead?
Genesis 1:1-3 as Related to the Trinity Doctrine
Psalm 45:6,7 - Why Is Jesus Called ELOHIM?
Yahweh Alleged to Apply to Two Different Personalities:
Adonai -- Another Word for "God"?
Adonai is not another word for "God." Adonai is a form of the word "Adon," meaning Lord. It is a plural form directly taken from the possessive form adoni (my Lord). Sometime after Jesus died, the Masoretes added a vowel point to Adoni in all places that thought* the word was being applied to Yahweh, thus forming the word plural form Adonai, literally meaning "my Lords." Like many other words in ancient Hebrew, a plural form used in singular settings denotes an intensive usage of the word, similar to the English superior and superlative modes. Such usage of a plural in a singular setting has been called the "plural intensive" usage of a word. As such, the word Adonai, when used of Yahweh, means something like "Supreme Lord."
Unity of the Godhead
Deuteronomy 6:4 - Echad
Genesis 1:5 - It is claimed that the evening and morning illustrate a compound one: one day. This may be, but the evening is not "day," nor is the morning the "day." Thus, applying this to the trinity would mean that God is a compound one, consisting of "parts." This cannot be applied to the trinitarian concept of the trinity, since the trinitarian dogma would not claim that the Father is 1/3 of God, and that the Son is 1/3 of God, and that the holy spirit is 1/3 of God. Such an application would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which separately would be "God."
Genesis 2:24 - It is claimed that echad here illustrates the compound usage of one, which is claimed to apply to the trinity. In actuality, for this apply to the trinitarian concept, then the man would have to equal to the whole of the "one flesh" (the marriage union), and also the woman would have equal to the whole of the "one flesh." "Flesh" in this verse does not mean the substance, since both the man and woman are already "flesh" substance before the union takes place, thus, "one flesh" is used to represent the two parts forming the marriage union. Applying this to the trinitarian concept would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which are "God" separately.
Ezra 2:64 -"The whole assembly together was forty-two thousand three hundred sixty." It is claimed that the usage of echad here supports the trinitarian concept, since the compound usages here includes many persons. Again, for this to support the trinitarian concept, each and every one of the forty-two thousand three hundered sixty persons would each, individually, have to be the "assembly." Each one separately, however, are not the "assembly," but rather are simply components, parts, of the assembly.
Ezekiel 37:17 - It is claimed that the two sticks that become one are an example of the trinity. Again, we have two component parts and go to make up a new "one." Each component part is not the "new" one itself. Applying this to the trinity would mean that God is made up of component parts that are each not "God", but when put together would form into "God."
The Hebrew word "yachid" corresponds to the English word "only."
Angel of Yahweh:
It is claimed that the angel of Yahweh is a person of Yahweh Himself. Actually, the very form "Angel (Messenger) of Yahweh" indicates that the messenger sent by Yahweh is not Yahweh. However, the messenger delivered to words of Yahweh and performed the works of Yahweh, and was thus addressed as Yahweh. A similar example is that of an interpreter in a court room. The interpreter presents the words that is interpreting as though they were his own. The interpreter is then addressed as though he were another for whom he is interpreting.
Monday, October 13, 2008
We will, Yahweh willing, be listing the scriptures from that page on this page, and providing links where one may find more information concerning those scriptures.
Regarding the Hebrew word ECHAD
For a study on the word ECHAD, see:
Old Testament Scriptures that are Alleged to "Reveal" the Assumed "Triune Godhead."
Zechariah 2:10, 11
Scriptures in the New Testament Alleged to refer to all Three Persons of Triune Godhead As Being Addressed as Yahweh of the Old Testament
Hebrews 1:1, 2 -- Definitely shows that Jesus is not Yahweh who speaks through Jesus, just as he spoke through Moses and the rest of the prophets. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-22.
Hebrews 1:5a & c -- 2 Samuel 7:14
Hebrews 1:6 -- Deuteronomy 32:43 [Septuagint]
Hebrews 1:8, 9 - Psalm 45:6, 7
Hebrews 1:10-12 - Psalm 102:25-27
Job 38:1, 4
Isaiah 45:20-23 - Philippians 2:9-11 - Romans 14:10, 11
Exodus 3:13, 14 - John 8:56-58
Jeremiah 31:33, 34 - Hebrews 10:15-17
Friday, October 10, 2008
Revelation 2:23 - I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.
John 2:24 - But Jesus didn't trust himself to them, because he knew all people,
John 2:25 -and because he didn't need for anyone to testify concerning man; for he himself knew what was in man.
John 2:24 often appears in lists as a scripture that is alleged to prove that Jesus is omniscient, and therefore that Jesus is Yahweh.
Actually, there is nothing in this scripture about Jesus' knowing everything the Father knows. What it does say is that he knew all people, but what does this mean?
The Greek word for "know" here is "ginosko". It is used in a variety of ways. In this context it means that Jesus understood that he could not trust the many in Jerusalem that believed in him. He knew that in a few years they would crucify him. It's similar to saying he understood human nature. The thought here is not that he individually knew every man.
The Greek word for "all" is a form of the Greek word "pas." This word always looks to context as well as just common evidence for what is included or excluded. This word is many times rendered as "all these," designating the "all" is in reference to the context. With this thought in mind, we can see that Matthew is referring to all those in the context who had believed in his name.
However, even if it were referring to all men on earth, it would not necessarily mean that Jesus knew each and every man personally, but it could mean that he knew of the general, fallen, crooked, condition of all men on earth. -- Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13.
Nevertheless, having the power also of discerning of spirits (1 Corinthians 12:10), he did not need any man should testify of them, for he knew what was in them. Jesus, with the power of the holy spirit could perceive things that the normal man could not . Peter, for example, knew that Ananias had lied about his offering, but that did not make Peter God. -- Acts 5:3.
Additionally, at some point God gave to Jesus the ability to judge the heart, for all judgment has been given to the Son. -- Isaiah 11:1-4; 42:1; John 5:22,23,27-30; Acts 17:31.
The judgment upon man was already given when God condemned Adam, and resulting perversions of character has been ever since, and Jesus knew this. -- Romans 1:18-2:2; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.
Even if Jesus had knowledge of every person on earth, this would not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, possessing all the knowledge that Yahweh has. This would only mean that he had been given this ability from the only Most High of whom he is Son.
One has to add to what Matthew said in order to make his words appear to mean that Jesus is omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe.
This is one of the scriptures that many trinitarians offer as proof that Jesus is omniscient, and thus from this line of reasoning they would like for us to think that Jesus is the Supreme Being, knowing absolutely everything in the universe, and then from this they would like for us to believe that the trinity dogma is true.
(World English Bible translation):
Matthew 12:23 - All the multitudes were amazed, and said, "Can this be the son of David?"
Matthew 12:24 - But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, "This man does not cast out demons, except by Beelzebul, the prince of the demons."
Matthew 12:25 - Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said to them, "Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation, and every city or house divided against itself will not stand.
Matthew 12:26 -If Satan casts out Satan, he is divided against himself. How then will his kingdom stand?
Matthew 12:27 - If I by Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? Therefore they will be your judges.
Matthew 12:28 - But if I by the Spirit of God cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come on you.
That Jesus knew the thoughts of the Pharisees does not mean that Jesus is "all-knowing," and that Jesus is the Supreme Being. It simply means that Jesus was given this power to know the thoughts of men through God's holy spirit. Jesus declared that he cast our demons by [Greek instrumental "en" -- Strong's #1720, by means of] the Spirit of his God. Likewise, I am sure that he could have also said that he knew their thoughts by means of the Spirit of his God.
The reasonable conclusion would be that Jesus received his knowledge from the only true God who sent him, even as the scriptures and Jesus himself stated many times. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
However, I know that many would like add to and read into these scriptures so as to split Jesus up into two sentient beings, one being who is God the Supreme Being and another being who is man -- a human being, and claim that when the scripture says that in "knowing their thoughts," that this was the God-being, while when Jesus said, "by the Spirit of God," that this was the human being speaking. This, in effect, would make Jesus himself be two persons, not one, since one of these beings would be omniscient in sentiency, while the other would not have that same sentiency. the In reality, there is no reason to add this splitting into the scriptures.
Wednesday, October 8, 2008
For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there I am in the midst of them.
World English Bible translation
"Teaching them to observe all things which I commanded you. Behold, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen.
World English Bible translation
The above words of Jesus are offered as proof that Jesus is omnipresent, one of the acclaimed incommunicable attributes that belong only to the Supreme Being.
At most, however, the scriptures only prove that the God and Father of Jesus has given to Jesus power to be in more than one place at once. That Jesus has been given by his God the power to be present in more than one place at once is not denied. (Matthew 28:18; Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 5:22-27; 1 Corinthians 15:27) As the one appointed by God as "Lord" over the church (Acts 2:36; 10:42; Ephesians 1:22; Hebrews 1:9; 3:2), Jesus would of necessity need to be present in some way with his followers.
And yet the scriptures also say:
Acts 3:19 Repent therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out, that so there may come times of refreshing from the presence [face, person] of [Yahweh],
Acts 3:20 and that he may send Christ Jesus, who was ordained for you before,
Acts 3:21 whom the heaven must receive [or, take hold of] until the times of restoration of all things, whereof God spoke by the mouth of his holy prophets that have been from ancient times.
So in some way also Jesus is received, held by, heaven, until the times of restoration of all things.
How is Jesus present with the disciples? The scriptures indicate that he is present by means of the holy spirit, which spirit Yahweh has given to Jesus. -- 1 John 3:24; 4:13; Acts 1:4; 2:33; John 15:26; See also: John 14:17,26; Acts 1:5,8; 9:31; Romans 8:1,9-17; 1 Corinthians 3:16; 6:19; 2 Corinthians 1:22; 3:3; 12:18; Philippians 2:1; 2 Timothy 1:14.
There is nothing, however, in Matthew 18:20; 28:20 that offer any proof that Jesus has an incommunicable attribute of Yahweh. The idea has to be added to and read into these scriptures.
1 Samuel 16:7 - But Yahweh said to Samuel, "Don't look on his face, or on the height of his stature; because I have rejected him: for [Yahweh sees] not as man sees; for man looks at the outward appearance, but Yahweh looks at the heart."
1 Chronicles 28:9 - You, Solomon my son, know you the God of your father, and serve him with a perfect heart and with a willing mind; for Yahweh searches all hearts, and understands all the imaginations of the thoughts: if you seek him, he will be found of you; but if you forsake him, he will cast you off forever.
Psalm 139:2 - You know my sitting down and my rising up. You perceive my thoughts from afar.
Jeremiah 11:20 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who judge righteously, who try the heart and the mind, I shall see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Jeremiah 17:10 - I, Yahweh, search the mind, I try the heart, even to give every man according to his ways, according to the fruit of his doings
Jeremiah 20:12 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who tests the righteous, who sees the heart and the mind, let me see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Revelation 2:23 - I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.
All this shows is that just as Yahweh has ability to judge men's hearts and minds, so has Yahweh, the God of Jesus, given to Jesus this ability (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:27; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), even as a similar ability was given to Peter through the holy spirit concerning Ananias and Sapphira's attempted deception. -- Acts 5:1-9.
Since God has given his Son the authority to judge, it would follow that God would give to Jesus the power to judge men's hearts, to know what is the hearts of men.
Isaiah 11:3 His delight shall be in the fear of Yahweh; and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither decide after the hearing of his ears;
Isaiah 11:4 but with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and decide with equity for the humble of the earth; and he shall strike the earth with the rod of his mouth; and with the breath of his lips shall he kill the wicked.
Isaiah 11:5 Righteousness shall be the belt of his waist, and faithfulness the belt of his loins.
There is nothing in any of these scriptures that should lead us to believe that Jesus is Yahweh, his God, who receives His power and authority from his God, his Supreme Being. -- Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 5:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.
Tuesday, October 7, 2008
Point Number 1:
There is only one true God.
This one God is a single divine being, called Jehovah or Yahweh in the Old Testament (the Lord).
The Father of our Lord Jesus Christ is God, the Lord.
The scriptures do show that there is only one true God. The one true God is identified in Exodus 3:15 as Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. This one true God is the God who sent Moses as a prophet to Israel, to deliver Israel from the land of Eygpt.
It was this same Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and of Moses, who said that he would raise up a prophet like Moses, a prophet who speak in his [Yahweh's] name. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19) Thus, Jesus spoke for this one true God as did Moses and the prophets of the Old Testament. (Hebrews 1:1,2) Therefore, it is Yahweh that Jesus spoke of as "the only true God" who had sent him. -- John 17:1,3.
It is Yahweh who is the "God and Father of Jesus." -- 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3.
It is Yahweh that Jesus speaks of as "my God." -- Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:17; Revelation 3:12.
It is Yahweh that Jesus speaks of as the only true God. -- John 17:3.
It is Yahweh that Jesus says that he was with before the world of mankind was made. -- John 1:1,2,10; John 17:1,3,5.
Yahweh, however, does not mean "the Lord." "The Lord" is one of the substitutes that many translations give for the holy name, in effect, changing the holy name of the God and Father of Jesus into "the Lord." The Bible does not say that there are many "holy names" (plural), as some would have us believe. The Bible only speaks of the singular, eternal, "holy name" -- Yahweh (Jehovah).
Thus our points in this regard is that:
1. There is only one true God.
2. That one true God is identified as "Yahweh" (Jehovah).
3. That one true God is the God and Father of Jesus.
The next points will be discussed in the next study, Yahweh willing...
Click Here for a list of books we recommend regarding the trinity. Our recommendation does not mean that we agree with all the conclusions and opinions given by the authors.
Wednesday, October 1, 2008
It is often stated that Arius denied the deity of Christ. One such statement appears at:
According to this blogsite:
Arianism denies the deity of Christ in particular and the Trinity in general. It seems to have started with Arius.What did Arius actually say? It is difficult to know all the details of the teachings of Arius, since practically all that was written by him was systematically destroyed by the trinitarians. Most of what we have is what trinitarians writers and some writings of his later followers assert that Arius taught. Of Arius' actual writings, what we have is only that which the trinitarian, Athanasius, preserved. Only two letters of Arius were preserved, evidently because these two letters provided the trinitarians with an alledged basis of damning Arius for what he believed. These two letters can be found online (translated into English -- the translation may be biased) at:
There is nothing in the letters that indicate whether Arius actually claimed to deny the deity of Christ. As far as the limited meaning of "deity" as given by trinitarians, he did deny that Jesus was the Supreme Being. This does not mean that he was denying the attribute "deity" to Jesus in the Hebraic sense, that is, in the sense of might, power, or, of a divine being, similar to the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) Thus, based on what we actually have of Arius' writings, whether Arius was denying the deity of Jesus would depend on defining the English word "deity" apart from Biblical usage.
See my study:
The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"
The might, power, and authority of Jesus was that given to him by the only true Might of the universe, that is, his God and Father. (Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; 17:1,3,5; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22) Jesus is never depicted as the source of his deity, but rather he is always depicted as receiving his deity -- his power, authority, etc., -- from his God and Father.
The letters of Arius, however, do show that there was and had been for some time a lot of different views of who Jesus was and is. Was Arius presenting a new view? Or was he defending what the Bible says? We should note that Arius describes the view of certain men (that were teaching that Jesus had no beginning) to be that of "heretical opinions." Therefore, he certainly believed that what he was saying was not a new view, but that the other views were the "new" views.
See also my studies related to:
The Deity of Jesus
- Matthew 4:7 and Luke 4:12
- John 10:11,14 - The Good Shepherd (m-jesus)
- Hosea 1:7 - Yahweh Saves by Yahweh
- James 2:19 - God is One
- Is the Trinity Doctrine a Basic Biblical Doctrine?...
- Yahweh is One
- Revelation 2:23 - Jesus Searches the Hearts
- John 2:24
- Matthew 12:25
- Matthew 18:20
- Jesus' Ability to Search Hearts
- RB01 The God and Father of Jesus
- Arius and the Deity of Christ
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