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Saturday, May 14, 2016

John 4:26 - EGO EIMI and Jesus' Claim to be the Messiah

Some trinitarians are using John 4:26 connected with Isaiah 43:10-12 and/or Isaiah 52:6 as proof that Jesus is Jehovah. The assumption is that Jesus' usage of the Greek phrase often transliterated as "EGO EIMI", often translated as "I am he", in John 4:26 means that Jesus was declaring himself to Jehovah in Isaiah 43 and Isaiah 52, since Jehovah used "I am he" in those verses.

However, in Isaiah 43 and Isaiah 52 Jehovah is declaring himself to be the one that he describes in the context, and likewise Jesus does the same thing in John 4:26. Let us examine who Jesus was declaring himself to be:

John 4:25-26 - The woman said to him, "I know that Messiah comes," (he who is called Christ). "When he has come, he will declare to us all things." Jesus said to her, "I who speak to you am he."
-- World English.

Jesus was not declaring himself to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but rather he was declaring himself to be the Messiah, meaning "anointed" or "anointed one".

Who anointed Jesus?

Isaiah quotes the Messiah as prophetically stating:

Isaiah 61:1 - The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on Me, because Jehovah has anointed Me to preach the gospel to the meek. He has sent Me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to captives, and complete opening to the bound ones. -- Green's Literal.

It is the Lord Jehovah who anointed and sent the Messiah. This is the same Jehovah who speaks in Exodus 3:14,15. The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in Exodus 3:14,15 is not Jesus; we know this because Peter refers to the God and Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in Acts 3:13 and shows in Acts 3:13-26 that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is the one who raised Jesus up as the foretold prophet like Moses. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19.

Thus, in John 4:25,26, Jesus was not declaring Himself to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), but he was declaring himself to be one whom the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob anointed and sent.

Jesus later referring the Lord Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1 as the "only true God" who had sent him. (John 17:1,3) Paul shows that the God and Father of Jesus is only true Supreme Being when he declared Him to be the "one God" who is the source of all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:4-6.

Nevertheless, many will not accept the simple truth, but will imagine, assume, add to, and read into, the scriptures that Jehovah of Isaiah 61:1 is not their "triune God", but rather they would imagine, assume, add to, and read the verse that the Lord Jehovah there is only the alleged "first person" of the alleged triune God, and continue to imagine, and assume such throughout all the scriptures related to this, etc. They then present what they have imagined and assumed as being factual, and claim that if one cannot disprove all that they add to the scriptures, then what they have imagined and assume must be true.

Some of the less informed trinitarians try to tie the Greek expression of transliterated as EGO EIMI in John 4:26 with EHJEH of Exodus 3:14, usually by use of the "I am" phrase as it appears in the translations in both verses. Many of the same principles I have presented in my study on the "I am" statements  of Jesus also apply to Jesus' usage in "John 4:26"; indeed, it is self-apparent that by his words recorded at John 4;26 Jesus was not speaking of his name as being Ehjeh, but that he was simply stating that he was the promised Messiah.

Related Studies:
John 8:58 and Other "I am" Statements of Jesus
Is "I am" Used by Jesus the Divine Name of God?
Past Tense Translations of EGO EIMI
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus
Isaiah 43:10 - Did Jehovah Declare Himself to be the Messiah?

Sunday, March 13, 2016

Matthew 28:18 - Was This God the Son Speaking?

One makes the claim that when Jesus spoke at times it was GOD speaking and at times the Flesh speaking, evidently applying the alleged "dual natures" philosophy. Jesus' words spoken in Matthew 28:18 is given as evidence of this, since Jesus stated that all power in heaven and earth had been given to him. The question is raised to how this could be, and the answer is supplied that this Was God (incarnated in Jesus) who was speaking.
Jesus came to them and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth. – (Matthew 28:18)

I will first note that some translations put “power” here instead of “authority”; the correct rendering, however, is “authority”.

It should be evident that "all authority" that is given to Jesus has been given to him from someone else. Other scriptures show that that Jesus receives this authority from the "one God" that Paul wrote about, He who is the source of all. (1 Corinthians 8:6; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2;Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Ezekiel 34:23,24; 37:24; Daniel 7:13,14; Micah 5:4; Matthew 12:28; 28:18; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22,36; 3:13-26; 10:38;Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.) Rather than offering any evidence that it was the alleged "God Jesus" who spoke these words, the truth is that what Jesus stated shows that he was NOT speaking as the Most High, since the Most High, being the source of all power and authority (1 Corinthians 8:6), has no need to be given any authority from someone else.

What Jesus stated as recorded in Matthew 28:18 is in harmony with 1 Corinthians 8:6, as well as Ephesians 1:3, 17-23, where we find that the God and Father of Jesus subjected the all to Jesus, but as Paul stated in 1 Corinthians 15:27, it is evident that He who subjected the all to Jesus is excepted.

Since the Bible is fully at harmony with itself without imagining, adding, and reading the assumption of "dual natures" of Jesus into the scriptures, I have no scriptural reason to add the assumption to any scripture.

See my study related to the “all power” that the only true God has given to Jesus.