The following scriptures are presented as proof that Jesus is his God, since Jesus said that he is "lord of the sabbath." It is claimed that this means that Jesus is "lord" over God's law, and that since he is lord of God's law, this means that jesus is God (Jehovah, Yahweh).
From the World English translation:
Matthew 12:8 - For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.
Mark 2:28 - Therefore the Son of Man is lord even of the Sabbath.
Luke 6:5 - He said to them, "The Son of Man is lord of the Sabbath."
The idea that what Jesus said here means that Jesus is his God has to be added to, read into the scriptures by way of assumptions, and then reading those assumptions into what Jesus said. The assumptions are made that since Jesus said that he is lord of the sabbath, that this means that he is lord over God's law, and this further means that Jesus is his God. And the assumptions are made for the purpose of serving the assumption that Jesus is Yahweh.
Jesus said that all things that he has had been given to him by his Father. (Matthew 28:18; Luke 10:22) Jesus further identified his God and Father as the only true God. (John 17:1,3) Thus whatever lordship that Jesus has was given to Jesus by the only true God. Peter said: "God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified." (Acts 2:36) This agrees with Isaiah 61:1, where the promised one is depicted as stating: "Yahweh has anointed me." The word "Christ" means "anointed one." The only true God, Yahweh, has made Jesus "lord" -- ruler, master -- of all things, excluding God Himself, and this includes the antitype of the "shadow" sabbaths. (Galatians 4:1; Colossians 2:16,17; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Ephesians 1:3,17,20-22) Being the the promised son of the man (Matthew 19:28; 25:31; 26:64; Mark 2:10; 14:62; Luke 18:31; 21:27; 22:69), that is, the promised Son, (seed, offspring) of David (Psalm 89:36; 132:11; Isaiah 9:6,7; Isaiah 11:1; Jeremiah 23:5; 33:15; Matthew 1:1; John 7:42; Acts 2:30; Romans 1:3), Jesus is made lord and given dominion over all -- excluding God, who gives this dominion to Jesus. (Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 15:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22) This does not mean that Jesus is the only true God who has made Jesus "lord."
It is also true that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob had used Jesus in the making of the ages (Hebrews 1:1,2), which brings up the possibility that Jesus was used by the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in giving the Law to Moses, and that, in this sense he could be referred to as "Lord of the sabbath." If this assumption is correct, however, such an application still does not mean that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
Nevertheless, "Lord" in the Greek is anarthrous; it does not have the definite article. It is not saying that Jesus is "the" Lord of the sabbath, but rather, Jesus is simply called "Lord" or "Master" of the sabbath. Jesus was "master" of the sabbath, not because he was God, but because he, as the son of the man, that is, as the promised son of the man, David (see scriptures above), being born under the Law (Galatians 4:4), obeyed the Law without failure. Had he disobeyed that law in one small part, he could not have actually fulfilled the Law, and thus he would have nothing to sacrifice, since he would be just as guilty and in need of redemption from condemnation as any other man. (Matthew 5:17; James 2:10) Jesus was therefore, as the promised son of the man, David, master of the sabbath, obeying God's laws concerning the sabbath perfectly. Jesus' obedience, and his sacrifice of right to human life gained by that obedience, fulfilled the Law, and thus the Law was figuratively nailed to the stauros with Jesus. -- Colossians 2:14.
The offering in sacrifice of Jesus' blood and body brought forth the inauguration of another covenant, called the "New Covenant." (Matthew 26:28; Mark 14:24; 22:20; 1 Corinthians 11:25; Hebrews 10:14,29; 12:24; 13:20) Through faith in his blood, the Jew can become counted as dead to the Law (Romans 7:4), counted as having died with Jesus (Romans 6:8,11), so as to belong to Jesus, being imputed justification and sanctified through the blood of the new covenant. -- Romans 3,4.
Additionally, Jesus knew from his God and Father (John 8:28) what was really in observance of the law, and what it was "lawful" to do on the sabbath, as opposed to the strict applications that Jews were making concerning the sabbath. Jesus said "it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath day." (Matthew 12:12) Some parts of the law apply over other parts of the Law, as Jesus illustrated by David's eating of the shewbread, which was, strictly speaking, unlawful. But "mercy" in the Law is of greater importance in some instances, so that what would otherwise be "unlawful" would be "lawful" -- permitted by the law.
Click Here for some recommended books on the christology.
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Saturday, November 8, 2008
Thursday, November 6, 2008
Jesus as the Human Son of God
The claim is made by some trinitarians and some others that the expression "Son of God" means that Jesus is/was 100% God, and yet that Jesus is/was also 100% human. It is further claimed that Jesus was/is not a mixture of the two, since such a mixture is alleged to be an impossibility.
The truth is that, scripturally, it is not a matter of Jesus' being a mixture of two. The scriptures show that the expressions "the son of the Most High", and the "son of God" do not mean that Jesus is the Most High.
Luke 1:30 The angel said to her, "Don't be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.
Luke 1:31 Behold, you will conceive in your womb, and bring forth a son, and will call his name 'Jesus.'
Luke 1:32 - He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High. [Yahweh] God will give to him the throne of his father, David.
Luke 1:33 and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever. There will be no end of his kingdom."
Luke 1:34 Mary said to the angel, "How will this be, seeing I am a virgin?"
Luke 1:35 The angel answered her, "The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one which is born from you will be called the Son of God.
Matthew 1:20 - But when he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, don't be afraid to take to yourself Mary, your wife, for that which is conceived (gennao -- begotten*) in her is of the Holy Spirit.
============
*See this word used in John 3:3,4,5,6,7,8. The King James Version renders this word various ways, including "begat", "born", "gender", and "bring forth".
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=1080
Here we find that the one to be called the "the son of the Most High", "the Son of God," was indeed flesh in the womb of Mary, nothing more, nothing less, except that his flesh, his body, was provided by God Himself, so that Jesus was not born into this world as a son of disobedience, a son of wrath, under the bondage of corruption. -- Ecclesiastes 1:5; 7:13; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Romans 8:21; Ephesians 2:2,3; Hebrews 10:5; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5.
The scriptures nowhere speak of the birth or begettal of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and it is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who is identified in the Bible as being the God and Father of Jesus. -- Exodus 3:15 (Acts 3:13); Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16; Acts 3:22,23); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
Thus, in Bible, we do find that Jesus "the son of God" was begotten, not as "God" in the womb of Mary, but as a flesh and blood human being, nothing more, nothing less.
The scriptures in no place refer to Jesus as the Most High, but he is "the son of the Most High." -- Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16
We have no scriptural reason to add to and read into any of this that "the Son of God" means that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and at the same was a human being who was not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. To so reason leads to more and more assumptions that are added to the scriptures to justify the reasoning, such as adding to and reading into the scriptures that since the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is spoken of as the God of Jesus, then Jesus the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is not the Jesus the human being who has as his God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of Jesus. Taking this to its logical conclusion would lead to the conclusion that the assumed Jesus the God is not the same person as Jesus the human being who has claimed to be Jesus the God/being who is the God of Jesus.
Trinitarians often present further assumptions which have to be added to the scriptures when it is claimed that Jesus was "begotten" [which means to be brought forth into existence] in eternity, that is, outside of time, and thus it is further claimed that Jesus has always existed since he was begotten [brought forth into existence] outside of time. In reality, such an idea would mean that Jesus was never brought forth into existence, since it is alleged that he has always existed, and also since no time was existing that would have any relation to his being brought forth into existence.
Although we do not know of anyone who make such a claim, we can definitely say, however, that the begettal in the womb of Mary of the son of the Most High is not referring to any alleged begettal of the son of the Most High in eternity. That which was begotten in the womb of Mary was indeed "the son of the Most High," "the son of God," and not the begettal of a God being/nature of Jesus. (Luke 1:32,35) We should also note that Isaac is spoken of as being born/begotten of the spirit in Galatians 4:29.
We read of others who are said to be "sons of the Most High" in Psalm 82:6. These are evidently the same sons that is spoken of in John 1:11,12, those to whom the Logos came. (John 1:14,11,12; 10:35) These are made "sons of God" through faith in Jesus, and are led by God's spirit, being born -- begotten/brought forth -- of the spirit. -- Galatians 3:7; Romans 8:14; John 3:8.
Galatians 3:4-6 But I say that so long as the heir is a child, he differeth nothing from a bondservant though he is lord of all: 2 but is under guardians and stewards until the day appointed of the father. So we also, when we were children, were held in bondage under the rudiments of the world: but when the fulness of the time came, God sent forth his Son, born of a woman, born under the law covenant, that he might redeem them that were under the law covenant, that we might receive the placement as sons. And because ye are sons, God sent forth the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, Abba, Father. -- THE REVISED VERSION (American Edition) Improved and Corrected from manuscripts discovered and published to A.D. 1999.
Many trinitarians will admit that the expression "son of the Most High" in Luke 1:32 refers to Jesus as a human, and not as the Most High. In so doing, however, they are unwittingly admitting that "son of the Most High" does not mean that the son is also "Most High". Likewise, the expression "Son of God" (Luke 1:32) does not mean that God reproduced himself as an alleged offspring "nature/being" of God Almighty, but rather that the son brought forth in the womb of Mary was the Christ, whom the Jews recognized was to be "the Son of God." (Matthew 26:63) While in the days of his flesh, the Son of God was flesh, nothing more, nothing less, having the crown of glory that is a little lower than that of the angels. -- John 1:14; Hebrews 5:7,9.
Additionally, the word "begotten/born" [brought forth] in the Bible does not necessarily mean to be brought forth of the same substance. This is a false reasoning of man, based on the laws of reproduction that God has placed on the reproduction of his living creation on the earth. (Genesis 1:11,12,21,24) From this it is supposed that these laws of physical reproduction should also apply to the Creator, so that for the Creator to have a son would mean that the Son would be of the same substance as his Father, and thus equal to his Father in every way, that is, he would be a God being/nature. The scriptures, however, never say this.
When Jesus was begotten/born of the holy spirit in the womb of Mary (Matthew 1:20), he was not begotten as a spirit being, but as a human being. If the theory of being begotten produces the same substance from which it was begotten be true, then Jesus as begotten in the womb of Mary was of the same substance as the holy spirit, and would not be flesh at all. However, in reality, that which was begotten in the womb of Mary was flesh, a little lower than the angels, nothing more, nothing less.
See:
Born of the Spirit
Nor does John 3:3,5,7 offer any proof that being begotten/born of the spirit means that one is a spirit being, as some have assumed. Jesus also said we must be begotten/born of water; does this mean that we are to become water beings, as well as spirit beings? (John 3:5) Obviously, Jesus is talking about something other than becoming water beings or spirit beings as a result of the begettal of water and spirit.
See:
With What Kind of Body Will We Be Raised?
The scriptures show that Jesus was begotten/born/brought forth three times.
(1) as the firstborn creature. -- Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22-25.
See:
Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
(2) of the holy spirit as a human, born of a woman, under the law, a little lower than the angels. -- Matthew 1:20; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 2:9.
(3) from the dead when he was raised from the dead. -- Psalm 2:7; Acts 13:33; Colossians 1:18; Hebrews 1:5; 5:5.
See:
Jesus Died a Human Being - Raised a Spirit Being
Some Books of Interest:
I do not necessarily recommend all that these authors may present:
Languages from the World of the Bible By Gzella, Holger (EDT) (Google Affiliate Ad)
The truth is that, scripturally, it is not a matter of Jesus' being a mixture of two. The scriptures show that the expressions "the son of the Most High", and the "son of God" do not mean that Jesus is the Most High.
Luke 1:30 The angel said to her, "Don't be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.
Luke 1:31 Behold, you will conceive in your womb, and bring forth a son, and will call his name 'Jesus.'
Luke 1:32 - He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High. [Yahweh] God will give to him the throne of his father, David.
Luke 1:33 and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever. There will be no end of his kingdom."
Luke 1:34 Mary said to the angel, "How will this be, seeing I am a virgin?"
Luke 1:35 The angel answered her, "The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one which is born from you will be called the Son of God.
Matthew 1:20 - But when he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, don't be afraid to take to yourself Mary, your wife, for that which is conceived (gennao -- begotten*) in her is of the Holy Spirit.
============
*See this word used in John 3:3,4,5,6,7,8. The King James Version renders this word various ways, including "begat", "born", "gender", and "bring forth".
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=1080
Here we find that the one to be called the "the son of the Most High", "the Son of God," was indeed flesh in the womb of Mary, nothing more, nothing less, except that his flesh, his body, was provided by God Himself, so that Jesus was not born into this world as a son of disobedience, a son of wrath, under the bondage of corruption. -- Ecclesiastes 1:5; 7:13; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Romans 8:21; Ephesians 2:2,3; Hebrews 10:5; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5.
The scriptures nowhere speak of the birth or begettal of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and it is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who is identified in the Bible as being the God and Father of Jesus. -- Exodus 3:15 (Acts 3:13); Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16; Acts 3:22,23); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
Thus, in Bible, we do find that Jesus "the son of God" was begotten, not as "God" in the womb of Mary, but as a flesh and blood human being, nothing more, nothing less.
The scriptures in no place refer to Jesus as the Most High, but he is "the son of the Most High." -- Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16
We have no scriptural reason to add to and read into any of this that "the Son of God" means that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and at the same was a human being who was not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. To so reason leads to more and more assumptions that are added to the scriptures to justify the reasoning, such as adding to and reading into the scriptures that since the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is spoken of as the God of Jesus, then Jesus the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is not the Jesus the human being who has as his God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of Jesus. Taking this to its logical conclusion would lead to the conclusion that the assumed Jesus the God is not the same person as Jesus the human being who has claimed to be Jesus the God/being who is the God of Jesus.
Trinitarians often present further assumptions which have to be added to the scriptures when it is claimed that Jesus was "begotten" [which means to be brought forth into existence] in eternity, that is, outside of time, and thus it is further claimed that Jesus has always existed since he was begotten [brought forth into existence] outside of time. In reality, such an idea would mean that Jesus was never brought forth into existence, since it is alleged that he has always existed, and also since no time was existing that would have any relation to his being brought forth into existence.
Although we do not know of anyone who make such a claim, we can definitely say, however, that the begettal in the womb of Mary of the son of the Most High is not referring to any alleged begettal of the son of the Most High in eternity. That which was begotten in the womb of Mary was indeed "the son of the Most High," "the son of God," and not the begettal of a God being/nature of Jesus. (Luke 1:32,35) We should also note that Isaac is spoken of as being born/begotten of the spirit in Galatians 4:29.
We read of others who are said to be "sons of the Most High" in Psalm 82:6. These are evidently the same sons that is spoken of in John 1:11,12, those to whom the Logos came. (John 1:14,11,12; 10:35) These are made "sons of God" through faith in Jesus, and are led by God's spirit, being born -- begotten/brought forth -- of the spirit. -- Galatians 3:7; Romans 8:14; John 3:8.
Galatians 3:4-6 But I say that so long as the heir is a child, he differeth nothing from a bondservant though he is lord of all: 2 but is under guardians and stewards until the day appointed of the father. So we also, when we were children, were held in bondage under the rudiments of the world: but when the fulness of the time came, God sent forth his Son, born of a woman, born under the law covenant, that he might redeem them that were under the law covenant, that we might receive the placement as sons. And because ye are sons, God sent forth the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, Abba, Father. -- THE REVISED VERSION (American Edition) Improved and Corrected from manuscripts discovered and published to A.D. 1999.
Many trinitarians will admit that the expression "son of the Most High" in Luke 1:32 refers to Jesus as a human, and not as the Most High. In so doing, however, they are unwittingly admitting that "son of the Most High" does not mean that the son is also "Most High". Likewise, the expression "Son of God" (Luke 1:32) does not mean that God reproduced himself as an alleged offspring "nature/being" of God Almighty, but rather that the son brought forth in the womb of Mary was the Christ, whom the Jews recognized was to be "the Son of God." (Matthew 26:63) While in the days of his flesh, the Son of God was flesh, nothing more, nothing less, having the crown of glory that is a little lower than that of the angels. -- John 1:14; Hebrews 5:7,9.
Additionally, the word "begotten/born" [brought forth] in the Bible does not necessarily mean to be brought forth of the same substance. This is a false reasoning of man, based on the laws of reproduction that God has placed on the reproduction of his living creation on the earth. (Genesis 1:11,12,21,24) From this it is supposed that these laws of physical reproduction should also apply to the Creator, so that for the Creator to have a son would mean that the Son would be of the same substance as his Father, and thus equal to his Father in every way, that is, he would be a God being/nature. The scriptures, however, never say this.
When Jesus was begotten/born of the holy spirit in the womb of Mary (Matthew 1:20), he was not begotten as a spirit being, but as a human being. If the theory of being begotten produces the same substance from which it was begotten be true, then Jesus as begotten in the womb of Mary was of the same substance as the holy spirit, and would not be flesh at all. However, in reality, that which was begotten in the womb of Mary was flesh, a little lower than the angels, nothing more, nothing less.
See:
Born of the Spirit
Nor does John 3:3,5,7 offer any proof that being begotten/born of the spirit means that one is a spirit being, as some have assumed. Jesus also said we must be begotten/born of water; does this mean that we are to become water beings, as well as spirit beings? (John 3:5) Obviously, Jesus is talking about something other than becoming water beings or spirit beings as a result of the begettal of water and spirit.
See:
With What Kind of Body Will We Be Raised?
The scriptures show that Jesus was begotten/born/brought forth three times.
(1) as the firstborn creature. -- Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22-25.
See:
Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
(2) of the holy spirit as a human, born of a woman, under the law, a little lower than the angels. -- Matthew 1:20; Galatians 4:4; Hebrews 2:9.
(3) from the dead when he was raised from the dead. -- Psalm 2:7; Acts 13:33; Colossians 1:18; Hebrews 1:5; 5:5.
See:
Jesus Died a Human Being - Raised a Spirit Being
Some Books of Interest:
I do not necessarily recommend all that these authors may present:
Languages from the World of the Bible By Gzella, Holger (EDT) (Google Affiliate Ad)
Thursday, October 30, 2008
Matthew 4:7 and Luke 4:12
The World English translation is used throughout this study, unless otherwise noted. The "Holy Name," Yahweh, is supplied in the New Testament at appropriate places.
Matthew 4:7 - Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God.'" King James has "the Lord, your God."
Luke 4:12 - Jesus answering, said to him, "It has been said, 'You shall not tempt [Yahweh] your God.'"
Deuteronomy 6:16 - You shall not tempt Yahweh your God.
The above scriptures are being presented as proof that Jesus is God, that is, that Jesus is allegedly a person of the only true God (trinitarian).
A few of the sites where this claim is made:
http://scripturecatholic.com/jesus_christ_divinity.html
http://groups.msn.com/DiscussionForum/general.msnw?action=get_message&mview=0&ID_Message=4936&all_topics=0
http://fellowcatholic.blogspot.com/search/label/CHRISTOLOGY
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080525094053AAEQjXV
http://br.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080211112726AAxq3F2
http://www.churchofhopeontheweb.org/God/son.htm
http://markcephastan.blogspot.com/2006/10/jesus-new-moses-who-else.html
The above sites are given, not because we believe what they present but for reference only.
Actually, if Satan thought that Jesus was God Almighty then he would have known how fruitless it would have been to try to deceive God so as to provoke God to sin. However, there is no indication whatsoever that Satan thought that he was trying to get Yahweh to sin.
Satan did not think that Jesus was God, but rather the son of God:
"If you are the Son of God." -- Matthew 4:3,6; Luke 4:9.
This was the emphasis that Satan himself was putting on his tests of Jesus, that is, in effect, Satan was saying to Jesus: "I want you to prove that you are son of God by doing this...." In reality, it was Satan's hopes to trick Jesus, to deceive Jesus, into being disobedient. Satan was not asking Jesus to prove that Jesus was God. Certainly Satan would have known if Jesus was Yahweh, and knowing that, would have also known that it would fruitless to try to deceive Yahweh into disobeying or denying Himself.
Let us read the context:
Matthew 4:5 - Then the devil took him into the holy city. He set him on the pinnacle of the temple,
Matthew 4:6 - and said to him, "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written, 'He will give his angels charge concerning you.' and, 'On their hands they will bear you up, So that you don't dash your foot against a stone.'"
Matthew 4:7- Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test Yahweh, your God.'"
What did Jesus say? Jesus did not appeal to Himself, so as to tell Satan, I am your God whom you should not test," but rather Jesus appeals on his own behalf to written Word of his God: "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God'" (Matthew 4:7), thereby showing his denial to submit to the temptation of Satan. The expression "your God" refers to Yahweh as the God of Israel, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), who is also the God of Jesus, the God who sent Jesus. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
http://tinyurl.com/yukbvs
http://godandson.reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html
Jesus was referring to the Law as given to Israel, Deuteronomy 6:16, which words were spoken to the nation of Israel, which was the only nation which had Yahweh as their God by covenant relationship. (Exodus 19:5,6; Deuteronomy 7:6; Amos 3:2) Thus, the words "your God" are in reference to the Israel's God. Was Jesus here claiming that he [Jesus] was Yahweh, and was Jesus telling Satan that he [Jesus] was Satan's God (as though Satan were under the Law through Moses) and that Satan should not be testing Satan's God? In reality, such an idea has to be added to and read into what Jesus said, and such an idea would actually take what Jesus said out of the context of the quote that Jesus gave, so as to apply Jesus as being Satan's God.
On the other hand, Jesus was, by birth, an Israelite, born under the law. (Galatians 4:4) Jesus knew who his God was. Jesus was applying the verse to himself as an Israelite, that he [Jesus], who worshiped Yahweh as his God, should not test Yahweh by submitting to the stunt that Satan was telling him to do.
Therefore, in reality, the fact is that Jesus was not saying to Satan that Jesus was "Yahweh, your God," the God that Satan was not to test.
Click Here for some recommended Bibles.
Matthew 4:7 - Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God.'" King James has "the Lord, your God."
Luke 4:12 - Jesus answering, said to him, "It has been said, 'You shall not tempt [Yahweh] your God.'"
Deuteronomy 6:16 - You shall not tempt Yahweh your God.
The above scriptures are being presented as proof that Jesus is God, that is, that Jesus is allegedly a person of the only true God (trinitarian).
A few of the sites where this claim is made:
http://scripturecatholic.com/jesus_christ_divinity.html
http://groups.msn.com/DiscussionForum/general.msnw?action=get_message&mview=0&ID_Message=4936&all_topics=0
http://fellowcatholic.blogspot.com/search/label/CHRISTOLOGY
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080525094053AAEQjXV
http://br.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080211112726AAxq3F2
http://www.churchofhopeontheweb.org/God/son.htm
http://markcephastan.blogspot.com/2006/10/jesus-new-moses-who-else.html
The above sites are given, not because we believe what they present but for reference only.
Actually, if Satan thought that Jesus was God Almighty then he would have known how fruitless it would have been to try to deceive God so as to provoke God to sin. However, there is no indication whatsoever that Satan thought that he was trying to get Yahweh to sin.
Satan did not think that Jesus was God, but rather the son of God:
"If you are the Son of God." -- Matthew 4:3,6; Luke 4:9.
This was the emphasis that Satan himself was putting on his tests of Jesus, that is, in effect, Satan was saying to Jesus: "I want you to prove that you are son of God by doing this...." In reality, it was Satan's hopes to trick Jesus, to deceive Jesus, into being disobedient. Satan was not asking Jesus to prove that Jesus was God. Certainly Satan would have known if Jesus was Yahweh, and knowing that, would have also known that it would fruitless to try to deceive Yahweh into disobeying or denying Himself.
Let us read the context:
Matthew 4:5 - Then the devil took him into the holy city. He set him on the pinnacle of the temple,
Matthew 4:6 - and said to him, "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written, 'He will give his angels charge concerning you.' and, 'On their hands they will bear you up, So that you don't dash your foot against a stone.'"
Matthew 4:7- Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test Yahweh, your God.'"
What did Jesus say? Jesus did not appeal to Himself, so as to tell Satan, I am your God whom you should not test," but rather Jesus appeals on his own behalf to written Word of his God: "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test [Yahweh], your God'" (Matthew 4:7), thereby showing his denial to submit to the temptation of Satan. The expression "your God" refers to Yahweh as the God of Israel, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), who is also the God of Jesus, the God who sent Jesus. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.
http://tinyurl.com/yukbvs
http://godandson.reslight.net/jesusnotyhwh.html
Jesus was referring to the Law as given to Israel, Deuteronomy 6:16, which words were spoken to the nation of Israel, which was the only nation which had Yahweh as their God by covenant relationship. (Exodus 19:5,6; Deuteronomy 7:6; Amos 3:2) Thus, the words "your God" are in reference to the Israel's God. Was Jesus here claiming that he [Jesus] was Yahweh, and was Jesus telling Satan that he [Jesus] was Satan's God (as though Satan were under the Law through Moses) and that Satan should not be testing Satan's God? In reality, such an idea has to be added to and read into what Jesus said, and such an idea would actually take what Jesus said out of the context of the quote that Jesus gave, so as to apply Jesus as being Satan's God.
On the other hand, Jesus was, by birth, an Israelite, born under the law. (Galatians 4:4) Jesus knew who his God was. Jesus was applying the verse to himself as an Israelite, that he [Jesus], who worshiped Yahweh as his God, should not test Yahweh by submitting to the stunt that Satan was telling him to do.
Therefore, in reality, the fact is that Jesus was not saying to Satan that Jesus was "Yahweh, your God," the God that Satan was not to test.
Click Here for some recommended Bibles.
Sunday, October 19, 2008
John 10:11,14 - The Good Shepherd (m-jesus)
This post has been moved to:
http://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/11/good-shepherd.html
http://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/2016/11/good-shepherd.html
Hosea 1:7 - Yahweh Saves by Yahweh
But I will have mercy on the house of Judah, and will save them by Yahweh their God, and will not save them by bow, nor by sword, nor by battle, by horses, nor by horsemen. -- Hosea 1:7, World English Bible.
Some trinitarians give Hosea 1:7 as an alleged example of two persons who are both called "Yahweh," and thus they offer Hosea 1:7 as an alleged proof of their doctrine of the trinity.
Here Yahweh is is contrasting the House of Judah with the House of Israel. In Hosea 1:6 he says that he will no longer have mercy on the house of Israel. To the house of Israel, Yahweh was, in effect, saying, "You are not my people, and I will not be your [God]." (Hosea 1:9) To the house of Judah, however, Yahweh is saying, "I will have mercy on the house of Judah, and will save them by Yahweh their God." Yahweh spoke of Himself by name as their God to emphasize that He, Yahweh, was still the God of house of Judah, and also that it would He, Yahweh, their God, who would deliver Judah, and that their deliverance would not be due to the implements that men use to conquer by means of battle. The JFB Commentary states regarding this:
Thus, while the house of Israel, as a whole, had come to despise Yahweh, Yahweh was emphasizing that He was still the God of the house of Judah.
What the trinitarian, however, would like for us to do regarding this verse, is (1) assume that the trinity dogma is true; (2) assume that "Yahweh" who is speaking is one person of Yahweh; (3) assume that when Yahweh said "by Yahweh" that this "Yahweh" is another person of Yahweh, who is not the first assumed person of Yahweh who speaking; and (4) then assume that these two assume persons who they claim are both called "Yahweh" are two persons of their alleged triune Yahweh. In reality, there is no need to add and read all these assumptions into the scripture.
Some trinitarians give Hosea 1:7 as an alleged example of two persons who are both called "Yahweh," and thus they offer Hosea 1:7 as an alleged proof of their doctrine of the trinity.
Here Yahweh is is contrasting the House of Judah with the House of Israel. In Hosea 1:6 he says that he will no longer have mercy on the house of Israel. To the house of Israel, Yahweh was, in effect, saying, "You are not my people, and I will not be your [God]." (Hosea 1:9) To the house of Judah, however, Yahweh is saying, "I will have mercy on the house of Judah, and will save them by Yahweh their God." Yahweh spoke of Himself by name as their God to emphasize that He, Yahweh, was still the God of house of Judah, and also that it would He, Yahweh, their God, who would deliver Judah, and that their deliverance would not be due to the implements that men use to conquer by means of battle. The JFB Commentary states regarding this:
more emphatic than "by Myself"; by that Jehovah (Me) whom they worship as their God, whereas ye despise Him.
Fausset, A. R., A.M. "Commentary on Hosea 1". "Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible".
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/JamiesonFaussetBrown/jfb.cgi?book=ho&chapter=001.
1871.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/JamiesonFaussetBrown/jfb.cgi?book=ho&chapter=001.
1871.
Thus, while the house of Israel, as a whole, had come to despise Yahweh, Yahweh was emphasizing that He was still the God of the house of Judah.
What the trinitarian, however, would like for us to do regarding this verse, is (1) assume that the trinity dogma is true; (2) assume that "Yahweh" who is speaking is one person of Yahweh; (3) assume that when Yahweh said "by Yahweh" that this "Yahweh" is another person of Yahweh, who is not the first assumed person of Yahweh who speaking; and (4) then assume that these two assume persons who they claim are both called "Yahweh" are two persons of their alleged triune Yahweh. In reality, there is no need to add and read all these assumptions into the scripture.
James 2:19 - God is One
James 2:19 - You believe that God is one.
Some trinitarians point to this scripture as proof that God is one. There thought, however, is that "God" means three persons in one God, or as some prefer, God in three persons. Is that, however, what James meant when he said "God is one." Is James speaking of three persons, all of whom are the one God that he speaks of?
James starts out his letter by first differentiating "God" from the "our Lord Jesus Christ." He says, "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ." (James 1:1) He continues to use the word "God" in James 1:5,13,20. In James 1:27 he speaks of "our God and Father." In the second chapter of James, he uses the word "God" in James 2:5, before he uses the word in again in James 2:19. We are not given any hint that James changed the meaning of the word "God" in James 2:19 to mean more than the God and Father as he spoke on in James 1:1,27. James continue identify "God" with the Father in James 3:9. Thus, there is no reason to think that in James 2:19 he is not also referring the Father as that "one" God. This agrees with Jesus' statement that his Father is "the only true God." (John 17:3) Rather than giving us any reason to think of the one God as three persons, James 2:19 in its context vindicates the God and Father of Jesus as the one and only true God. -- John 20:17; Romans 15:6; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3.
Some trinitarians point to this scripture as proof that God is one. There thought, however, is that "God" means three persons in one God, or as some prefer, God in three persons. Is that, however, what James meant when he said "God is one." Is James speaking of three persons, all of whom are the one God that he speaks of?
James starts out his letter by first differentiating "God" from the "our Lord Jesus Christ." He says, "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ." (James 1:1) He continues to use the word "God" in James 1:5,13,20. In James 1:27 he speaks of "our God and Father." In the second chapter of James, he uses the word "God" in James 2:5, before he uses the word in again in James 2:19. We are not given any hint that James changed the meaning of the word "God" in James 2:19 to mean more than the God and Father as he spoke on in James 1:1,27. James continue identify "God" with the Father in James 3:9. Thus, there is no reason to think that in James 2:19 he is not also referring the Father as that "one" God. This agrees with Jesus' statement that his Father is "the only true God." (John 17:3) Rather than giving us any reason to think of the one God as three persons, James 2:19 in its context vindicates the God and Father of Jesus as the one and only true God. -- John 20:17; Romans 15:6; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3.
Is the Trinity Doctrine a Basic Biblical Doctrine? Part 1
Is the Trinity Doctrine a Basic Biblical Doctrine?
In reality, we do not find the doctrine of the trinity in the Bible at all, much less find it there as a basic doctrine of the Bible. The idea has to be added to, and read into, each and every scripture that is presented to allegedly claim that the Bible teaches such a doctrine. Jerry Casper has presented a page in which he endeavors to show scriptures both from the Old Testament and the New Testament that are alleged to indicate, or give credence to, the trinitarian dogma.
I will, Yahweh willing, present the scriptures he uses, and sometimes a point that he might raise. In some cases I may give a brief comment. In other cases, I may present links that give a discussion of the scripture. In some cases I may do both.
Matthew 28:18,19 - Verse 18 definitely proves that Jesus is not the Supreme Being, since the Supreme Being, being the source of all power, does not need to have such power given to him.
Matthew 28:19
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/19/mat-2819/
Matthew 28:19
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=225.0
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
http://godandson.reslight.net/matt-28-19.html
Matthew 3:16,17
Direct Scriptures where all three are mentioned together
Of course, the fact that the God of Jesus, and the holy spirit of God, are mentioned in the same verses with the God of Jesus, does not mean that all three are persons of the only true God.
1 Corinthians 12:4-6
1 Peter 1:2
Matthew 28:19
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/19/mat-2819/
Matthew 28:19
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=225.0
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
http://godandson.reslight.net/matt-28-19.html
One Divine Being:
This, of course, would limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being. The Bible does not do this. The word "divine" comes from forms of the Hebrew word usually transliterated as "EL." These forms are translated in the Greek New Testament as forms of the Greek word usually transliterated as "THEOS." EL, in its basic meaning, denotes, power, strength, might. There is only one "MIGHT" in the universe, and that one MIGHT is the God and Father of Jesus, since He is the source of all might in the universe. There are others, however, to whom the Bible legitimately applies the words for divinity, such as the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) The saints are called to partake of the "divine nature." Thus, others who receive special mightiness from the only true MIGHT, can also be referred to as divine. This includes the Son of God who was sent by the only true God. -- John 17:1,3.
If one wants to limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being, then that One would be the God and Father of Jesus.
See:
The Divinity of Jesus
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/17/divinity/
Was Jesus Divine as a Human?
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=179.0
The Divine Nature in 2 Peter 1:4
http://godandson.reslight.net/divine-nature.html
The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"
http://godandson.reslight.net/hebraictitles.html
Deuteronomy 6:4
James 2:19 - God is One
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/10/james2-19.html
John 10:30
http://clearblogs.com/jesusandhisgod/2206/John+10%3A30.html
John 10:30 and the Oneness of Yahweh and Jesus
http://reslight.net/john10-30.html
Isaiah 45:5,6
Isaiah 46:9
Old Testament Scriptures Alleged as Indications of the Trinity:
Plurality of the Godhead (elohim):
The plurality of ELOHIM signifies more than one God, not persons who make up one God.
See:
Elohim - Does This Word Indicate a Plurality of Persons in a Godhead?
http://godandson.reslight.net/e-p.html
Genesis 1:1-3 as Related to the Trinity Doctrine
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-1.html
Psalm 45:6,7 - Why Is Jesus Called ELOHIM?
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-8.html
Hosea 1:7
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/10/hosea-17.html
Yahweh Alleged to Apply to Two Different Personalities:
Genesis 19:24
Zechariah 8:9
Adonai -- Another Word for "God"?
Adonai is not another word for "God." Adonai is a form of the word "Adon," meaning Lord. It is a plural form directly taken from the possessive form adoni (my Lord). Sometime after Jesus died, the Masoretes added a vowel point to Adoni in all places that thought* the word was being applied to Yahweh, thus forming the word plural form Adonai, literally meaning "my Lords." Like many other words in ancient Hebrew, a plural form used in singular settings denotes an intensive usage of the word, similar to the English superior and superlative modes. Such usage of a plural in a singular setting has been called the "plural intensive" usage of a word. As such, the word Adonai, when used of Yahweh, means something like "Supreme Lord."
Plural Pronouns
Genesis 1:26
Unity of the Godhead
Deuteronomy 6:4 - Echad
Genesis 1:5 - It is claimed that the evening and morning illustrate a compound one: one day. This may be, but the evening is not "day," nor is the morning the "day." Thus, applying this to the trinity would mean that God is a compound one, consisting of "parts." This cannot be applied to the trinitarian concept of the trinity, since the trinitarian dogma would not claim that the Father is 1/3 of God, and that the Son is 1/3 of God, and that the holy spirit is 1/3 of God. Such an application would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which separately would be "God."
Genesis 2:24 - It is claimed that echad here illustrates the compound usage of one, which is claimed to apply to the trinity. In actuality, for this apply to the trinitarian concept, then the man would have to equal to the whole of the "one flesh" (the marriage union), and also the woman would have equal to the whole of the "one flesh." "Flesh" in this verse does not mean the substance, since both the man and woman are already "flesh" substance before the union takes place, thus, "one flesh" is used to represent the two parts forming the marriage union. Applying this to the trinitarian concept would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which are "God" separately.
Ezra 2:64 -"The whole assembly together was forty-two thousand three hundred sixty." It is claimed that the usage of echad here supports the trinitarian concept, since the compound usages here includes many persons. Again, for this to support the trinitarian concept, each and every one of the forty-two thousand three hundered sixty persons would each, individually, have to be the "assembly." Each one separately, however, are not the "assembly," but rather are simply components, parts, of the assembly.
Ezekiel 37:17 - It is claimed that the two sticks that become one are an example of the trinity. Again, we have two component parts and go to make up a new "one." Each component part is not the "new" one itself. Applying this to the trinity would mean that God is made up of component parts that are each not "God", but when put together would form into "God."
The Hebrew word "yachid" corresponds to the English word "only."
Angel of Yahweh:
It is claimed that the angel of Yahweh is a person of Yahweh Himself. Actually, the very form "Angel (Messenger) of Yahweh" indicates that the messenger sent by Yahweh is not Yahweh. However, the messenger delivered to words of Yahweh and performed the works of Yahweh, and was thus addressed as Yahweh. A similar example is that of an interpreter in a court room. The interpreter presents the words that is interpreting as though they were his own. The interpreter is then addressed as though he were another for whom he is interpreting.
In reality, we do not find the doctrine of the trinity in the Bible at all, much less find it there as a basic doctrine of the Bible. The idea has to be added to, and read into, each and every scripture that is presented to allegedly claim that the Bible teaches such a doctrine. Jerry Casper has presented a page in which he endeavors to show scriptures both from the Old Testament and the New Testament that are alleged to indicate, or give credence to, the trinitarian dogma.
I will, Yahweh willing, present the scriptures he uses, and sometimes a point that he might raise. In some cases I may give a brief comment. In other cases, I may present links that give a discussion of the scripture. In some cases I may do both.
Matthew 28:18,19 - Verse 18 definitely proves that Jesus is not the Supreme Being, since the Supreme Being, being the source of all power, does not need to have such power given to him.
Matthew 28:19
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/19/mat-2819/
Matthew 28:19
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=225.0
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
http://godandson.reslight.net/matt-28-19.html
Matthew 3:16,17
Direct Scriptures where all three are mentioned together
Of course, the fact that the God of Jesus, and the holy spirit of God, are mentioned in the same verses with the God of Jesus, does not mean that all three are persons of the only true God.
1 Corinthians 12:4-6
1 Peter 1:2
Matthew 28:19
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/09/19/mat-2819/
Matthew 28:19
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=225.0
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
http://godandson.reslight.net/matt-28-19.html
One Divine Being:
This, of course, would limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being. The Bible does not do this. The word "divine" comes from forms of the Hebrew word usually transliterated as "EL." These forms are translated in the Greek New Testament as forms of the Greek word usually transliterated as "THEOS." EL, in its basic meaning, denotes, power, strength, might. There is only one "MIGHT" in the universe, and that one MIGHT is the God and Father of Jesus, since He is the source of all might in the universe. There are others, however, to whom the Bible legitimately applies the words for divinity, such as the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) The saints are called to partake of the "divine nature." Thus, others who receive special mightiness from the only true MIGHT, can also be referred to as divine. This includes the Son of God who was sent by the only true God. -- John 17:1,3.
If one wants to limit the meaning of the word "divine" to the Supreme Being, then that One would be the God and Father of Jesus.
See:
The Divinity of Jesus
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/17/divinity/
Was Jesus Divine as a Human?
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=179.0
The Divine Nature in 2 Peter 1:4
http://godandson.reslight.net/divine-nature.html
The Hebraic Usage of the Titles for "God"
http://godandson.reslight.net/hebraictitles.html
Deuteronomy 6:4
James 2:19 - God is One
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/10/james2-19.html
John 10:30
http://clearblogs.com/jesusandhisgod/2206/John+10%3A30.html
John 10:30 and the Oneness of Yahweh and Jesus
http://reslight.net/john10-30.html
Isaiah 45:5,6
Isaiah 46:9
Old Testament Scriptures Alleged as Indications of the Trinity:
Plurality of the Godhead (elohim):
The plurality of ELOHIM signifies more than one God, not persons who make up one God.
See:
Elohim - Does This Word Indicate a Plurality of Persons in a Godhead?
http://godandson.reslight.net/e-p.html
Genesis 1:1-3 as Related to the Trinity Doctrine
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-1.html
Psalm 45:6,7 - Why Is Jesus Called ELOHIM?
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-8.html
Hosea 1:7
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/10/hosea-17.html
Yahweh Alleged to Apply to Two Different Personalities:
Genesis 19:24
Zechariah 8:9
Adonai -- Another Word for "God"?
Adonai is not another word for "God." Adonai is a form of the word "Adon," meaning Lord. It is a plural form directly taken from the possessive form adoni (my Lord). Sometime after Jesus died, the Masoretes added a vowel point to Adoni in all places that thought* the word was being applied to Yahweh, thus forming the word plural form Adonai, literally meaning "my Lords." Like many other words in ancient Hebrew, a plural form used in singular settings denotes an intensive usage of the word, similar to the English superior and superlative modes. Such usage of a plural in a singular setting has been called the "plural intensive" usage of a word. As such, the word Adonai, when used of Yahweh, means something like "Supreme Lord."
Plural Pronouns
Genesis 1:26
Unity of the Godhead
Deuteronomy 6:4 - Echad
Genesis 1:5 - It is claimed that the evening and morning illustrate a compound one: one day. This may be, but the evening is not "day," nor is the morning the "day." Thus, applying this to the trinity would mean that God is a compound one, consisting of "parts." This cannot be applied to the trinitarian concept of the trinity, since the trinitarian dogma would not claim that the Father is 1/3 of God, and that the Son is 1/3 of God, and that the holy spirit is 1/3 of God. Such an application would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which separately would be "God."
Genesis 2:24 - It is claimed that echad here illustrates the compound usage of one, which is claimed to apply to the trinity. In actuality, for this apply to the trinitarian concept, then the man would have to equal to the whole of the "one flesh" (the marriage union), and also the woman would have equal to the whole of the "one flesh." "Flesh" in this verse does not mean the substance, since both the man and woman are already "flesh" substance before the union takes place, thus, "one flesh" is used to represent the two parts forming the marriage union. Applying this to the trinitarian concept would mean that God consists of three parts, none of which are "God" separately.
Ezra 2:64 -"The whole assembly together was forty-two thousand three hundred sixty." It is claimed that the usage of echad here supports the trinitarian concept, since the compound usages here includes many persons. Again, for this to support the trinitarian concept, each and every one of the forty-two thousand three hundered sixty persons would each, individually, have to be the "assembly." Each one separately, however, are not the "assembly," but rather are simply components, parts, of the assembly.
Ezekiel 37:17 - It is claimed that the two sticks that become one are an example of the trinity. Again, we have two component parts and go to make up a new "one." Each component part is not the "new" one itself. Applying this to the trinity would mean that God is made up of component parts that are each not "God", but when put together would form into "God."
The Hebrew word "yachid" corresponds to the English word "only."
Angel of Yahweh:
It is claimed that the angel of Yahweh is a person of Yahweh Himself. Actually, the very form "Angel (Messenger) of Yahweh" indicates that the messenger sent by Yahweh is not Yahweh. However, the messenger delivered to words of Yahweh and performed the works of Yahweh, and was thus addressed as Yahweh. A similar example is that of an interpreter in a court room. The interpreter presents the words that is interpreting as though they were his own. The interpreter is then addressed as though he were another for whom he is interpreting.
Monday, October 13, 2008
Yahweh is One
This page is in response to the following blog page:
http://theophilus-loverofgodsword.blogspot.com/
We will, Yahweh willing, be listing the scriptures from that page on this page, and providing links where one may find more information concerning those scriptures.
Proverbs 1:7
Deuteronomy 6:4
Regarding the Hebrew word ECHAD
For a study on the word ECHAD, see:
http://godandson.reslight.net/echad-one.html
Genesis 2:24
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=122.0
Numbers 13:23
Numbers 34:18
Ezra 3:9
Ezra 6:20
Old Testament Scriptures that are Alleged to "Reveal" the Assumed "Triune Godhead."
Genesis 3:22
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-3-22.html
Genesis 1:26
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-26.html
Genesis 19:24
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-19-24.html
Zechariah 2:10, 11
http://godandson.reslight.net/zec2-10.html
Scriptures in the New Testament Alleged to refer to all Three Persons of Triune Godhead As Being Addressed as Yahweh of the Old Testament
Hebrews 1:1, 2 -- Definitely shows that Jesus is not Yahweh who speaks through Jesus, just as he spoke through Moses and the rest of the prophets. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-22.
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-1-10.html
Psalm 2:7
http://godandson.reslight.net/ps-2-7.html
Hebrews 1:5a & c -- 2 Samuel 7:14
Hebrews 1:6 -- Deuteronomy 32:43 [Septuagint]
Hebrews 1:8, 9 - Psalm 45:6, 7
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-8.html
Hebrews 1:10-12 - Psalm 102:25-27
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-10.html
Job 38:1, 4
Isaiah 45:20-23 - Philippians 2:9-11 - Romans 14:10, 11
Exodus 3:13, 14 - John 8:56-58
http://godandson.reslight.net/i-am.html
http://reslight.wordpress.com/2007/09/15/i-am-in-john-858/
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=304.0
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=178.0
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/12/john8-58/
Jeremiah 31:33, 34 - Hebrews 10:15-17
Daniel 7:9-14
Acts 7:54-56
http://theophilus-loverofgodsword.blogspot.com/
We will, Yahweh willing, be listing the scriptures from that page on this page, and providing links where one may find more information concerning those scriptures.
Proverbs 1:7
Deuteronomy 6:4
Regarding the Hebrew word ECHAD
For a study on the word ECHAD, see:
http://godandson.reslight.net/echad-one.html
Genesis 2:24
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=122.0
Numbers 13:23
Numbers 34:18
Ezra 3:9
Ezra 6:20
Old Testament Scriptures that are Alleged to "Reveal" the Assumed "Triune Godhead."
Genesis 3:22
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-3-22.html
Genesis 1:26
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-1-26.html
Genesis 19:24
http://godandson.reslight.net/gen-19-24.html
Zechariah 2:10, 11
http://godandson.reslight.net/zec2-10.html
Scriptures in the New Testament Alleged to refer to all Three Persons of Triune Godhead As Being Addressed as Yahweh of the Old Testament
Hebrews 1:1, 2 -- Definitely shows that Jesus is not Yahweh who speaks through Jesus, just as he spoke through Moses and the rest of the prophets. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-22.
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-1-10.html
Psalm 2:7
http://godandson.reslight.net/ps-2-7.html
Hebrews 1:5a & c -- 2 Samuel 7:14
Hebrews 1:6 -- Deuteronomy 32:43 [Septuagint]
Hebrews 1:8, 9 - Psalm 45:6, 7
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-8.html
Hebrews 1:10-12 - Psalm 102:25-27
http://godandson.reslight.net/heb-1-10.html
Job 38:1, 4
Isaiah 45:20-23 - Philippians 2:9-11 - Romans 14:10, 11
Exodus 3:13, 14 - John 8:56-58
http://godandson.reslight.net/i-am.html
http://reslight.wordpress.com/2007/09/15/i-am-in-john-858/
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=304.0
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=178.0
http://sonofyah.wordpress.com/2008/10/12/john8-58/
Jeremiah 31:33, 34 - Hebrews 10:15-17
Daniel 7:9-14
Acts 7:54-56
Friday, October 10, 2008
Revelation 2:23 - Jesus Searches the Hearts
Revelation 2:23 - I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.
This verse is often given by trinitarians as alleged proof that Jesus has omniscience, alleged proof that Jesus is Yahweh., and as alleged proof of the trinity dogma. The thought is evidently assumed that only Yahweh can search the minds and hearts, thus Jesus must be Yahweh, but evidently not Yahweh who sent Jesus (Isaiah 61:1,2), but rather as the alleged second person of Yahweh who was sent by the alleged first person of Yahweh. It is evidently also being assumed that only one who is omniscient could thus search the minds and hearts; and it is further assumed that this offers proof that Jesus is the alleged second person of the assumed trinity.
In truth, Jesus is given this power from his God and Father. Jesus says:
Revelation 2:26 - He who overcomes, and he who keeps my works to the end, to him will I give authority over the nations.
Revelation 2:27 - He will rule them with a rod of iron, shattering them like clay pots; as I also have received of my Father:
Revelation 2:28 and I will give him the morning star.
Note the words "as I also have received from my Father." Jesus here acknowledges that he receives his power from his Father. In Revelation 3:2, Jesus refers to his Father unipersonally as "my God." Of course, what many trinitarians will say is that when Jesus speaks of his Father as "my God," it is the human being Jesus speaking, but when he speaks words that that they assume to mean that he is God, they claim that it is Jesus the alleged God Being speaking. Thus, they would split up Jesus sentences so as to accord his words in this manner. Many would have his words "I will give to each one of you according to your deeds" and "to him will I give authority over the nations" to mean the alleged Jesus as God Being who speaks, but they would separate the phrases "my God" and "I also have received of my Father" with the claim that this is Jesus the human being speaking. Their claim is that Jesus is still a human being now in heaven (thereby denying the basis of the ransom sacrifice of Jesus, "the man who gave himself." -- 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 10:10) and thus in Revelation (as well as in the Gospels) they claim that sometimes it was the human being Jesus speaking while at other times it was the Jesus alleged to be the Supreme Being speaking. Thus, one assumption upon another assumption has to be placed upon the scripture in order to have scriptures to conform the human dogma that teaches that Jesus is Yahweh.
In reality, all the power and authority that Jesus has to judge, search the hearts and minds, etc., has been given to him from his God and Father. "For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son." (John 5:22) Jesus, having been given this authority and power from his God (John 5:19,22,26,27), also gives to those overcome "authority over the nations," just as he received his authority and power from his God. (Does this mean that all who overcome are the Most High?) In effect, Jesus is Yahweh's appointed agent to judge both the saints and the world. By means of this arrangement, Yahweh comes to judge the world by means of the one whom he has appointed. -- Psalm 96:13, 98:9; Acts 17:31.
However, those overcoming saints also receive the authority to rule and judge the nations (the unbelieving heathen), as Jesus said: "He who keeps my works to the end, to him will I give authority over the nations. He will rule them with a rod of iron, shattering them like clay pots; as I also have received of my Father." -- Revelation 2:26,27 -- See Daniel 7:22; Matthew 19:28; 1 Corinthians 6:2; Revelation 20:4.
There is nothing, however, in any of this that means that Jesus is Yahweh.
CLICK HERE for a list of books related to the trinity.
My recommendation of these books do not mean that I endorse all the conclusions and opinions presented by the authors.
John 2:24
John 2:23 - Now when he was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in his name, observing his signs which he did.
John 2:24 - But Jesus didn't trust himself to them, because he knew all people,
John 2:25 -and because he didn't need for anyone to testify concerning man; for he himself knew what was in man.
John 2:24 often appears in lists as a scripture that is alleged to prove that Jesus is omniscient, and therefore that Jesus is Yahweh.
Actually, there is nothing in this scripture about Jesus' knowing everything the Father knows. What it does say is that he knew all people, but what does this mean?
The Greek word for "know" here is "ginosko". It is used in a variety of ways. In this context it means that Jesus understood that he could not trust the many in Jerusalem that believed in him. He knew that in a few years they would crucify him. It's similar to saying he understood human nature. The thought here is not that he individually knew every man.
The Greek word for "all" is a form of the Greek word "pas." This word always looks to context as well as just common evidence for what is included or excluded. This word is many times rendered as "all these," designating the "all" is in reference to the context. With this thought in mind, we can see that Matthew is referring to all those in the context who had believed in his name.
However, even if it were referring to all men on earth, it would not necessarily mean that Jesus knew each and every man personally, but it could mean that he knew of the general, fallen, crooked, condition of all men on earth. -- Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13.
Nevertheless, having the power also of discerning of spirits (1 Corinthians 12:10), he did not need any man should testify of them, for he knew what was in them. Jesus, with the power of the holy spirit could perceive things that the normal man could not . Peter, for example, knew that Ananias had lied about his offering, but that did not make Peter God. -- Acts 5:3.
Additionally, at some point God gave to Jesus the ability to judge the heart, for all judgment has been given to the Son. -- Isaiah 11:1-4; 42:1; John 5:22,23,27-30; Acts 17:31.
The judgment upon man was already given when God condemned Adam, and resulting perversions of character has been ever since, and Jesus knew this. -- Romans 1:18-2:2; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.
Even if Jesus had knowledge of every person on earth, this would not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, possessing all the knowledge that Yahweh has. This would only mean that he had been given this ability from the only Most High of whom he is Son.
One has to add to what Matthew said in order to make his words appear to mean that Jesus is omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe.
John 2:24 - But Jesus didn't trust himself to them, because he knew all people,
John 2:25 -and because he didn't need for anyone to testify concerning man; for he himself knew what was in man.
John 2:24 often appears in lists as a scripture that is alleged to prove that Jesus is omniscient, and therefore that Jesus is Yahweh.
Actually, there is nothing in this scripture about Jesus' knowing everything the Father knows. What it does say is that he knew all people, but what does this mean?
The Greek word for "know" here is "ginosko". It is used in a variety of ways. In this context it means that Jesus understood that he could not trust the many in Jerusalem that believed in him. He knew that in a few years they would crucify him. It's similar to saying he understood human nature. The thought here is not that he individually knew every man.
The Greek word for "all" is a form of the Greek word "pas." This word always looks to context as well as just common evidence for what is included or excluded. This word is many times rendered as "all these," designating the "all" is in reference to the context. With this thought in mind, we can see that Matthew is referring to all those in the context who had believed in his name.
However, even if it were referring to all men on earth, it would not necessarily mean that Jesus knew each and every man personally, but it could mean that he knew of the general, fallen, crooked, condition of all men on earth. -- Ecclesiastes 1:15; 7:13.
Nevertheless, having the power also of discerning of spirits (1 Corinthians 12:10), he did not need any man should testify of them, for he knew what was in them. Jesus, with the power of the holy spirit could perceive things that the normal man could not . Peter, for example, knew that Ananias had lied about his offering, but that did not make Peter God. -- Acts 5:3.
Additionally, at some point God gave to Jesus the ability to judge the heart, for all judgment has been given to the Son. -- Isaiah 11:1-4; 42:1; John 5:22,23,27-30; Acts 17:31.
The judgment upon man was already given when God condemned Adam, and resulting perversions of character has been ever since, and Jesus knew this. -- Romans 1:18-2:2; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.
Even if Jesus had knowledge of every person on earth, this would not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, possessing all the knowledge that Yahweh has. This would only mean that he had been given this ability from the only Most High of whom he is Son.
One has to add to what Matthew said in order to make his words appear to mean that Jesus is omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe.
Matthew 12:25
Matthew 12:25—“Jesus knew their thoughts.”
This is one of the scriptures that many trinitarians offer as proof that Jesus is omniscient, and thus from this line of reasoning they would like for us to think that Jesus is the Supreme Being, knowing absolutely everything in the universe, and then from this they would like for us to believe that the trinity dogma is true.
(World English Bible translation):
Matthew 12:23 - All the multitudes were amazed, and said, "Can this be the son of David?"
Matthew 12:24 - But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, "This man does not cast out demons, except by Beelzebul, the prince of the demons."
Matthew 12:25 - Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said to them, "Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation, and every city or house divided against itself will not stand.
Matthew 12:26 -If Satan casts out Satan, he is divided against himself. How then will his kingdom stand?
Matthew 12:27 - If I by Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? Therefore they will be your judges.
Matthew 12:28 - But if I by the Spirit of God cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come on you.
That Jesus knew the thoughts of the Pharisees does not mean that Jesus is "all-knowing," and that Jesus is the Supreme Being. It simply means that Jesus was given this power to know the thoughts of men through God's holy spirit. Jesus declared that he cast our demons by [Greek instrumental "en" -- Strong's #1720, by means of] the Spirit of his God. Likewise, I am sure that he could have also said that he knew their thoughts by means of the Spirit of his God.
The reasonable conclusion would be that Jesus received his knowledge from the only true God who sent him, even as the scriptures and Jesus himself stated many times. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
However, I know that many would like add to and read into these scriptures so as to split Jesus up into two sentient beings, one being who is God the Supreme Being and another being who is man -- a human being, and claim that when the scripture says that in "knowing their thoughts," that this was the God-being, while when Jesus said, "by the Spirit of God," that this was the human being speaking. This, in effect, would make Jesus himself be two persons, not one, since one of these beings would be omniscient in sentiency, while the other would not have that same sentiency. the In reality, there is no reason to add this splitting into the scriptures.
This is one of the scriptures that many trinitarians offer as proof that Jesus is omniscient, and thus from this line of reasoning they would like for us to think that Jesus is the Supreme Being, knowing absolutely everything in the universe, and then from this they would like for us to believe that the trinity dogma is true.
(World English Bible translation):
Matthew 12:23 - All the multitudes were amazed, and said, "Can this be the son of David?"
Matthew 12:24 - But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, "This man does not cast out demons, except by Beelzebul, the prince of the demons."
Matthew 12:25 - Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said to them, "Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation, and every city or house divided against itself will not stand.
Matthew 12:26 -If Satan casts out Satan, he is divided against himself. How then will his kingdom stand?
Matthew 12:27 - If I by Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? Therefore they will be your judges.
Matthew 12:28 - But if I by the Spirit of God cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come on you.
That Jesus knew the thoughts of the Pharisees does not mean that Jesus is "all-knowing," and that Jesus is the Supreme Being. It simply means that Jesus was given this power to know the thoughts of men through God's holy spirit. Jesus declared that he cast our demons by [Greek instrumental "en" -- Strong's #1720, by means of] the Spirit of his God. Likewise, I am sure that he could have also said that he knew their thoughts by means of the Spirit of his God.
The reasonable conclusion would be that Jesus received his knowledge from the only true God who sent him, even as the scriptures and Jesus himself stated many times. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
However, I know that many would like add to and read into these scriptures so as to split Jesus up into two sentient beings, one being who is God the Supreme Being and another being who is man -- a human being, and claim that when the scripture says that in "knowing their thoughts," that this was the God-being, while when Jesus said, "by the Spirit of God," that this was the human being speaking. This, in effect, would make Jesus himself be two persons, not one, since one of these beings would be omniscient in sentiency, while the other would not have that same sentiency. the In reality, there is no reason to add this splitting into the scriptures.
Wednesday, October 8, 2008
Matthew 18:20
Matthew 18:20
For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there I am in the midst of them.
World English Bible translation Matthew 28:20
"Teaching them to observe all things which I commanded you. Behold, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen.
World English Bible translation
The above words of Jesus are offered as proof that Jesus is omnipresent, one of the acclaimed incommunicable attributes that belong only to the Supreme Being.
At most, however, the scriptures only prove that the God and Father of Jesus has given to Jesus power to be in more than one place at once. That Jesus has been given by his God the power to be present in more than one place at once is not denied. (Matthew 28:18; Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 5:22-27; 1 Corinthians 15:27) As the one appointed by God as "Lord" over the church (Acts 2:36; 10:42; Ephesians 1:22; Hebrews 1:9; 3:2), Jesus would of necessity need to be present in some way with his followers.
And yet the scriptures also say:
Acts 3:19 Repent therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out, that so there may come times of refreshing from the presence [face, person] of [Yahweh],
Acts 3:20 and that he may send Christ Jesus, who was ordained for you before,
Acts 3:21 whom the heaven must receive [or, take hold of] until the times of restoration of all things, whereof God spoke by the mouth of his holy prophets that have been from ancient times.
So in some way also Jesus is received, held by, heaven, until the times of restoration of all things.
How is Jesus present with the disciples? The scriptures indicate that he is present by means of the holy spirit, which spirit Yahweh has given to Jesus. -- 1 John 3:24; 4:13; Acts 1:4; 2:33; John 15:26; See also: John 14:17,26; Acts 1:5,8; 9:31; Romans 8:1,9-17; 1 Corinthians 3:16; 6:19; 2 Corinthians 1:22; 3:3; 12:18; Philippians 2:1; 2 Timothy 1:14.
There is nothing, however, in Matthew 18:20; 28:20 that offer any proof that Jesus has an incommunicable attribute of Yahweh. The idea has to be added to and read into these scriptures.
Jesus' Ability to Search Hearts
According to many the following scriptures prove that Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah), since similar language is used of both Jesus and Yahweh. Trinitarians use these scriptures as proof that Jesus is a person of Yahweh. Others may also use these scriptures to support whatever doctrine they might hold to by which they believe that the Son of the Most High is the Most High of whom he is the son.
1 Samuel 16:7 - But Yahweh said to Samuel, "Don't look on his face, or on the height of his stature; because I have rejected him: for [Yahweh sees] not as man sees; for man looks at the outward appearance, but Yahweh looks at the heart."
1 Chronicles 28:9 - You, Solomon my son, know you the God of your father, and serve him with a perfect heart and with a willing mind; for Yahweh searches all hearts, and understands all the imaginations of the thoughts: if you seek him, he will be found of you; but if you forsake him, he will cast you off forever.
Psalm 139:2 - You know my sitting down and my rising up. You perceive my thoughts from afar.
Jeremiah 11:20 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who judge righteously, who try the heart and the mind, I shall see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Jeremiah 17:10 - I, Yahweh, search the mind, I try the heart, even to give every man according to his ways, according to the fruit of his doings
Jeremiah 20:12 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who tests the righteous, who sees the heart and the mind, let me see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Revelation 2:23 - I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.
All this shows is that just as Yahweh has ability to judge men's hearts and minds, so has Yahweh, the God of Jesus, given to Jesus this ability (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:27; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), even as a similar ability was given to Peter through the holy spirit concerning Ananias and Sapphira's attempted deception. -- Acts 5:1-9.
Since God has given his Son the authority to judge, it would follow that God would give to Jesus the power to judge men's hearts, to know what is the hearts of men.
Isaiah 11:3 His delight shall be in the fear of Yahweh; and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither decide after the hearing of his ears;
Isaiah 11:4 but with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and decide with equity for the humble of the earth; and he shall strike the earth with the rod of his mouth; and with the breath of his lips shall he kill the wicked.
Isaiah 11:5 Righteousness shall be the belt of his waist, and faithfulness the belt of his loins.
There is nothing in any of these scriptures that should lead us to believe that Jesus is Yahweh, his God, who receives His power and authority from his God, his Supreme Being. -- Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 5:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.
1 Samuel 16:7 - But Yahweh said to Samuel, "Don't look on his face, or on the height of his stature; because I have rejected him: for [Yahweh sees] not as man sees; for man looks at the outward appearance, but Yahweh looks at the heart."
1 Chronicles 28:9 - You, Solomon my son, know you the God of your father, and serve him with a perfect heart and with a willing mind; for Yahweh searches all hearts, and understands all the imaginations of the thoughts: if you seek him, he will be found of you; but if you forsake him, he will cast you off forever.
Psalm 139:2 - You know my sitting down and my rising up. You perceive my thoughts from afar.
Jeremiah 11:20 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who judge righteously, who try the heart and the mind, I shall see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Jeremiah 17:10 - I, Yahweh, search the mind, I try the heart, even to give every man according to his ways, according to the fruit of his doings
Jeremiah 20:12 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who tests the righteous, who sees the heart and the mind, let me see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.
Revelation 2:23 - I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.
All this shows is that just as Yahweh has ability to judge men's hearts and minds, so has Yahweh, the God of Jesus, given to Jesus this ability (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:27; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), even as a similar ability was given to Peter through the holy spirit concerning Ananias and Sapphira's attempted deception. -- Acts 5:1-9.
Since God has given his Son the authority to judge, it would follow that God would give to Jesus the power to judge men's hearts, to know what is the hearts of men.
Isaiah 11:3 His delight shall be in the fear of Yahweh; and he shall not judge after the sight of his eyes, neither decide after the hearing of his ears;
Isaiah 11:4 but with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and decide with equity for the humble of the earth; and he shall strike the earth with the rod of his mouth; and with the breath of his lips shall he kill the wicked.
Isaiah 11:5 Righteousness shall be the belt of his waist, and faithfulness the belt of his loins.
There is nothing in any of these scriptures that should lead us to believe that Jesus is Yahweh, his God, who receives His power and authority from his God, his Supreme Being. -- Psalm 2:6-8; 45:7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:2; 42:1; 61:1-3; Jeremiah 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 12:28; 28:28; Luke 1:32; 4:14,18; 5:17; John 3:34; 5:19,27,30; 10:18,36-38; Acts 2:22; 10:38; Romans 1:1-4; 1 Corinthians 5:27; 2 Corinthians 13:4; Colossians 1:15,16; 2:10; Ephesians 1:17-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,4,6,9; 1 Peter 3:22.
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