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Monday, December 28, 2015

John 10:38; 14:10,11 - The Father in His Son

John 10:38 - But if I do them, though you don't believe me, believe the works; that you may know and believe that the Father is in me, and I in the Father. -- World English

John 14:10 - Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father who lives in me does his works.
John 14:11 -
Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me; or else believe me for the very works’ sake. -- World English.

Compare John 14:20; 15:7; 17:21; 1 John 2:5,6,27,28; 3:6,24; 4:13,15; 5:20


The scriptures quoted above are often cited as proof of the trinity, and/or as proof that Jesus is a person of God (the Supreme Being). In reality, we find nothing in the verses about a triune God, or that Jesus is a person of such a God.  As usual, the trinitarian has to imagine such beyond what is written (1 Corinthians 4:6), and he has formulate assumptions (which is often presented as dogma) which have to be added to, and read into, what is stated.

Jesus identified his Father as being the only true God who -- before his son became flesh -- sent his son to become flesh. -- John 1;10,14; 17:1,3. This should settle the matter, but it doesn't for the trinitarian.

Nevertheless, the trinitarian likes to "see" his trinitarian dogma in the scriptures presented, but he to do this, he has to be inconsistent in his application of scripture. What do we mean?

While Jesus did speak of his God being in him and his being in his God, he also said that he is in his disciples and his disciples are him him. -- John 14:20; 15:5.

Jesus prayed that his followers be in him and his Father. -- John 17:21,23.

John wrote that Jesus' followers are in God, and God is in them. -- 1 John 3:24; 4:13,15,16.

If the trinitarian is consistent in his application, then he would also have to recognize all of Jesus' true followers as being persons of God.

Additionally, we read that "Satan entered into Judas"
(Luke 22:3). Does this mean that Judas became a person of Satan? I don't know of anyone who would think such. Judas, however, did lend himself to influence of Satan so as to do the work of Satan. Likewise, Jesus explained that the words he spoke were not his own, but the he spoke the words of his Father (the only true God -- John 17:1,3) who was living in him. This agrees with Paul's words of 1 Corinthians 8:6, as well as as with the entire rest of the Bible. There is no scriptural reason to imagine and assume the trinitarian assumptions and read such assumptions into what Jesus stated.